Self Assesment-I Part 2

SELF ASSESSMENT -I-PART 2

151-Picking problems are caused by excessive moisture or the inclusion of substance with low melting temperature in the formulation. This problem occurs in which formulations:

A.Capsule

B.Powder

C.Tablet

D.Suspensions

E.Intravenous solutions

152. To improve the flowability of the powder or granules or both.

A-Lubricant

B-Antiadherents

C-Solvent

D-Binder

E-Glidant

153-The following method cannot be used in Aspirin tablet manufacturing process:

I.Dry granulations

II.Direct compression methods

III.Wet granulation methods

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

154-All of the following are correct combinations EXCEPT:

A-Efflorescent - liberate water

B- Deliquescent – absorb moisture till become liquid

C- Hygroscopic – absorb moisture from air

D-Eutectic mixture – give high melting point.

E- Effervescent Salts – liberate carbon dioxide in presence of acid or base.

155-All of the following are correct combinations EXCEPT:

A-Antifoaming – HLB value 0-3

B.w/o emulsifying HLB value 4-6

C-wetting agent HLB value 7-9

D-o/w emulsifying HLB value 6-10

E-detergent HLB value 13-15

155-D

comment: o/w emulsifying HLB values are 8-18

156. All of the following are correct combinations EXCEPT:

A-Levigating agent – Mineral oil

B-Humectant – Glycerine

C- Surfactant – Nonoxynol 9

D-Suspending agent – Bentonite

E-Water soluble base – cocoa butter

157-Sebaceous gland of the skin secret substance which prevents skin dryness and water evaporation, and keeps the skin soft.

A.Sweat

B.Sebum

C.Pigment

D.Cercumen

E.Salt

158-Possible consequences of inappropriate use of antibacterials include:

a) increased levels of resistant viruses

b) increased patient tolerability to adverse effects

c) decreased research and development of new antibacterial by pharmaceutical companies

d) increased levels of resistant pathogenic bacteria

e) Decreased levels of resistant pathogenic bacteria

159- Example of drug used in prophylaxis of malaria include:

a) Cloroquine

b) Quinine

c) Primaquin

d) Quinin

e) Quinidine

160- Which of the following is NOT an anti-fungal drug?

a) Amphotericin B

b) Metronidazole

c) Grisofulvin

d) Nystatin

e) Clotrimazole

161- Examples of drugs that may inhibit DNA gyrase may include:

a) Gentamycin

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Norfloxacine

d) Erythromycin

e) Penicillin

162- Which of the following agents may best treat Meningococcal encephalitis?

a) Sulfametoxazole

b) Erythromycin

c) Cephalexin

d) Tetracycline

e) Penicillin

163- The difference between second and third degree burns:

I.Second degree burns painful upon pressure

II.Third degree burns has blisters

III.Third degree burns are leathery gray to black

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

164- Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding Gray Babies syndrome?

I- Occurs in premature and new born infants when choraphenicol is administrated during the first few days of life

II- Due to inability of the infant to metabolize the drug because of glucoronyl transferase deficiency

III- Glucoronyl transferase is required to detoxify cloramphenicol

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

165- Correct statements regarding Pellagra include:

I- Caused due to deficiency of niacin

II- Caused by failure in converting tryptophan to niacin

III- Characterized by dermatitis, diarrhea and dementia

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

166- Gonorrhea, a sexually transmitted disease may be treated by which of the following agents?

I- Cefixime

II- Ceftriaxone

III- Ciprofloxacin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

167- Osteoporosis caused by the deficiency of the following:

I.Adequate intake of vitamin D

II.Adequate intake of calcium

III.Estrogen

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

168- Viral encephalitis, a CNS infection, may be best be treated by which of the following agents?

a) Benzyl penicillin

b) Ceftriaxone

c) Acyclovir

d) Streptomycin

e) Vancomycin

169- Example of drug(s) used to treat pneumonia include:

I- Ampicilin combined with aminoglycosides

II-Chlaritromycin

III- Levofloxacin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

170- All of the following are disease modifying antirheumatic drugs (DMARD) EXCEPT:

A.Methotrexate

B.Hydroxychlorquine

C.Methimazole

D.Sulfasalazine

E.Gold sodium thiomalate

171- Otitis media is an ear infection normally caused by S. pneumoniae and may be best treated by:

a) Amoxacillin

b) Penicillin V

c) Ampicilin

d) Amoxacillin clavulanate

e) Oxacillin

172- EMPHYSEMA:

I-Permanent alveolar enlargement distal to the terminal bronchioles and destructive changes of the alveolar walls. 

II-Lack of uniformity in air space enlargement resulting in loss of alveolar surface area.

III-The collapse of these small airways results in airflow limitation.

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

173- Which of the following agents would be used in the treatment of infections caused by Helicobacter pylori as combination therapy?

a) Penicillin, amoxacillin, ampicillin and metronidazole

b) Chlaritromycin, amoxacillin, omeprazole and metronidazole

c) Chlaritromycin, azithromycin and lansoprazole

d) Ceftriaxone and metronidazole only

e) Combinations of antibiotic should not be used due to resistance.

174- DRY POWDER INHALERS (Tubuhalers)

I.Easier to use than MDI’s

II.This avoids Freon propellant.

III. Do not wash (moisture) mouth piece of inhaler after use

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

175- Colitis associated with antibiotic use can best be treated by:

a) Cephalosporins

b) Macrolides

c) Aminoglycosides

d) Vancomycin

e) Penicillin

176- Antibiotics that often cause colitis-acute inflammation of colon as side effect include:

I- Broad-spectrum penicillins

II- Cephalosporins

III- Clindamycin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

177- Drug used together with chloroquine in the treatment of malaria with the purpose to kill persistants parasites in the liver of a person infected with Plasmodium vivax is:

a) Quinine

b) Pyrimethamine

c) Sulfadoxine

d) Primaquine

e) Quinidine

178- Patient is resistant to chloroquine and need to be treated for malaria. Which of the following drugs or combination should be more appropriate for this patient?

a) Atovaquone only

b) Chloroquine and primaquine

c) Quinine and doxacycline

d) Mefloquine

e) C and D are correct

179- Correct statements regarding antibiotics may include:

a) Drugs derivated from synthetic substances that can kill or inhibit bacterial growth

b) Drugs derivated from natural source that can kill or inhibit bacteria growth

c) Drug with ability only to kill bacteria

d) Drug with ability only to inhibit bacterial growth

e) All are wrong regarding antibiotics

180- Which of the following amino acid is an important precursor of hemoglobin?

a) Alanine

b) Proline

c) Leucine

d) Glycine

e) Histadin

181- Which of the following is an important enzymatic reaction involved in muscular contraction?

a) Glucose-6-phosphatase reaction

b) Glycogenolysis

c) ATP-Creatine phosphokinase reaction

d) Enolase reaction

e) Glucogenolysis

182- Protein disnaturation may happen due to:

a) Exposure to air

b) Shaking

c) Increase in temperature

d) Chemical reagents

e) All are correct

183- Which of the following enzyme is responsible for the synthesis of DNA?

a) DNA polymerase

b) DNA gyrase

c) DNA ligase

d) RNA transferase

e) None of the above

184- Which pyrimidine base is NOT present in RNA sequence?

a) Uracil

b) Thiamine

c) Cytosine

d) Guanine

e) Adenine

185- Which of the following is the predominant intracellular element?

a) Sodium

b) Magnesium

c) Potassium

d) Calcium

e) Phosphorous

186- Which of the following is the only polysaccharide NOT synthesized during human metabolism?

a) Maltase

b) Sucrose

c) Glucose

d) Cellulose

e) Frutose

187- Heparin synthesized in the body and can be classified as:

a) Monosaccharideo

b) Polysaccharide

c) Disaccharide

d) Oligosaccharide

e) Aminoacid

188- Sucrose is a disaccharide formed from two molecules of monosaccharide:

a) Glucose + frutose

b) Glucose + glucose

c) Glucose + galactose

d) Frutose + frutose

e) Galactose + galactose

189- Enzymes that catalyze the transfer of one group to other group is called:

a) Oxidoreductase enzymes

b) Transferase enzymes

c) Hydrolyses enzymes

d) Isomerasis enzymes

e) Lyasis enzymes

190- Catabolism of carbohydrates is a process characterized by:

I- Consume of energy

II- Release stored energy from carbohydrates

III-Glycogenolysis is an example of carbohydrates catabolism reaction

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

                           

191- All of the following can be differentiated from a mast cell, EXCEPT

a) Eosinophil

b) Basophile

c) Neutrophil

d) Platelet

e) Erythrocytes

  

192- Basophiles, neutrophils and eosinophils are originated from

a) Myeloblasts

b) Lymphoblasts

c) Monoblasts

d) Proerythroblasts

e) Megakarioblasts

193- Which of the following is/are considered autoimmune disorders?

I- Grave’s disease

II- Systemic Lupus Erythomatosus

III- Osteoporosis

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

194- True statements regarding the use of monoclonal antibodies include which of the following?

I- Flu-like symptoms commonly occurs at the start of therapy

II- T-cells are blocked from initiating the rejection process

III- Orthoclone is a human immunoglobulin product

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

195- Which of the following is not related to lymphocytes?

a) Lymph nodes

b) Thymus gland

c) Thoracic duct

d) Spleen

e) Thyroid gland

196- Attenuated viruses used for vaccination:

I- Poliomyelitis virus

II- MMR-Mumps, measles and rubella virus

III- TB-Mycobacterium

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

197- Drugs that stabilize mast cells are used in the treatment of:

a) Organ implants rejection

b) Cancer therapy

c) Allergic rhinitis

d) Asthma

e) Myocardial infaction

198- All of the following biological are used for active immunization, EXCEPT:

a) Bacterial vaccine

b) Bacterial antigen

c) Multiple antigen preparations

d) Toxoids

e) Toxins

199- Correct statements regarding Technetium 99m may include?

I- Is the most used radionuclide in nuclear pharmacy

II- It is produced by the radioactive decay of molybdenum-99

III- It has a half-life of 6hours

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

200- Correct statements regarding Klein filter syndrome include:

I- Male with enlarge breast, small testis and infertility

II- The male has 3 chromosomes

III- Chromosomes forming XXY, presence of one extra female chromosome.

 a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

201- Correct statements regarding infantile genetic agranulocytosis include?

I- Type I hypersensitivity

II- Caused by a decrease in bone marrow activity

III- Treatment can be done by transfer of WBCs or large doses of antibiotics

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

202- For an antihistaminic drug be effective, it must have which of the following molecular characteristics on its structure?

I- A terminal tertiary nitrogen

II- More than one aryl or heretoaryl group

III- Presence of C−C−C between C−O

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

203- Arrange the following groups from the most reactive to the least reactive:

COOH    CH4    OCH3    COOˉ

a) COOˉ→COOH→OCH3→CH4

b) COOH→CH4 →COOˉ→OCH3

c) OCH3 →COOH→COOˉ→CH4

d) CH4→OCH3→COOˉ→COOH  

e) COOH→OCH3→CH4 →COOˉ 

204-Isomerism are compounds that have the same molecular formula but different chemical structures, and may be classified in many different ways depending of structure. One example is conformational isomerism that is characterized by:

I- The relationship between isomers that differ only by rotations around single bond

II- The molecules must be stereoisomers

III- They can be enantiomers

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

205- Optic isomerism may be classified in CIS and TRAS, which of the following is an example of optic isomerism?

a) Butene

b) 1-Butene

c) 2-Butene

d) 3-Butyne

e) 1-Butane

206- Conformation of the 2-methyl groups in 1,4-dimethyl-cyclohexane is:

a) Equatorial-equatorial

b) Conformational-conformational

c) Equatorial-spatial

d) Geometric-geometric

e) Spatial-spatial

207- Choracetic acid is stronger than acetic acid due to:

a) Higher ionization effect

b) Higher molecular weight

c) Higher disintegration rate

d) Electron withdrawal effect

e) All are right

208- Pyridine is a monocyclic heterocyclic compound very important in the activity of many different drugs. The molecular structure 1,4-dihydropyridine is found in:

a) Verapamil

b) Digoxin

c) Clonidine

d) Nifedipine

e) Diltiazen

209- Quinolone structure may be found in which of the following substances?

a) Vitamin K

b) Thiamine

c) Cyanocobalamin

d) Folic acid

e) Vitamin A

210- Arrange the following pKa according to their acidity, from the least acid to the strong acid.   pKa  3.0, 5.2, 6.0, 2.0

a) 6.0 →5.2→ 2.0 →3.0

b) 5.2→3.0→ 2.0 →6.0

c) 6.0 →3.0→ 2.0 →5.2

d) 2.0 →3.0→ 5.2 →6.0

e) 6.0 →5.2→ 3.0 →2.0

211- How many cyclohexane and cyclopentane respectively has a steroid compound?

a) 2 and 3

b) 3 and 2

c) 4 and 1

d) 3 and 1

e) 1 and 3

212- Drugs containing hydroxyl group or carboxyl group is best metabolized by:

a) Acetylation

b) Glucuronidation

c) Reduction

d) Hydrolysis

e) Methylation

213. The income statement

A. Indicates the change in retained earning from one balance sheet to next. Which illustrates the amount of profit earned, in other words, it shows the contribution to owners equity resulting from the operation of the business.

B, A picture, at a point in time, its date, of the balances in the asset, liabilities, and owner’s equity accounts.

C. Indicates business retained earning that includes dividend payments that will reduce retained earnings.

D. Indicates net income that will increase retained earnings.

214. Job analysis

A. A concise and factual study of pharmacy’s staffing need.

B. Outlines the main components of each position.

C. Provides general description of the job, nature and the scope of the position.

D. Main areas of responsibility.

215. Position description

A. Outlines the main components of each position.

B. A concise and factual study of Pharmacy’s staffing need.

C. Description possesses all areas of the work to be done, and alert the pharmacy owner to duplication of functions.

D. Determine the responsibility of each employee and help prevent conflict.

216.Detailed job description

A. Detailed job description should list, all the task to be accomplished, in order of importance and describe in detail.

B. A concise and factual study of pharmacy’s staffing need

C. Detail job description possesses all areas of the work to be done, and alert the pharmacy owner to duplication of functions.

D. Determine the responsibility of each employee and help prevent conflict.

217.What is Turnover rate (TOR).

A.Ratio indicating net sales to net inventory is the turnover rate

B. Theoretical number of times during a special period, usually one year, that inventory is bought and complete sold.

C.Account receivable collection time is the turnover rate.

D.Account payable to collection time is the turnover rate.

218-What is SKU

A.Sale keeping unit

B.Stock keeping unit

C.Stock controle unit

D.Status keeping unit

219. What is DIN

A.Universal Product Code

B.Drug Identification Number

C.Drug Information Number

D.Universal Purchase code

220.Which of the following schedule require more pharmacist intervention.

A.Schedule II

B.Schedule III

C.Schedule I

D.Unschedule drugs

221. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD) is;

I. is a rare, progressive, fatal neurological disease.

II. It usually begins in middle to late adulthood, and leads to rapid degeneration of the affected person’s physical and mental capacities.

III. CJD is hereditary

A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct

222- Whenever exercising professional judgment one should consider

I.Actions that are in the best interest of the patient
II. Knowledge and expertise
III. A decision that your peers would consider reasonable given the circumstances
and  Documentation

A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct

223-Which of the following vitamin used along with mother milk in new borns

A.Vitamin B12

B.Vitamin A

C.Vitamin B6

D.Vitamin D

224- For  diaper rashes;

A.Alminium oxide

B.Zinc oxide

C.Aluminium hydroxide

D.Magnesium oxide

225-Narcotic drugs (Schedule N drugs)

A Refills permitted if written prescription

B.Refills not permitted, all re-orders must be new prescriptions

C.Refills not permitted if original prescription if verbal

D.An original written or verbal prescription may be refilled.

226-Coal tar (in concentration greater than 10%) clinical use:

A.Eczema, psoriasis, atopic dermatitis

B. Used in eye care

C.Can be used in anogenital area

D.Can applied to infected, blistered, raw or oozing skin.

227-Pharmacy location analysis, should be focused on:

A.intersection area

B.Market area analysis

C.hospital area

D.school area

228- Which of the following is the form of business in Canada

A.Private limited

B.Unlimited

C.Franchise

D.Carporations and limited

229-Which of the following indicates profits of earned in a day

A.Balance sheet

B.Income statement

C.Retained earning statement

D.Profit statement

230-Hierarchy of position and areas of work to be done is outlined in;

A.Job description

B.Job analysis

C.Position description

D.Detailed job description

231- Eukariotic and prokaryotic cells may differ from each other due to:

a) Presence or nor of nucleon

b) Presence or nor of mitochondria

c) Structure of cell wall

d) Presence or nor of nucleic acid

e) Presence or nor of endoplasmic reticulum

232- Which of the following  is/are the causative agent of ophthalmic neonate infection in Canada?

I- Chlamydia trachomatus

II-Streptococcus aureus

III- Streptococcus pneumoniae

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

233- Primary transmission of herpes is:

a) Cough

b) Lesions

c) Saliva

d) Blood

e) Air-conversation

234- Which of the following can be caused by streptococcus viridians?

a) Pyorrhea alveolar

b) Endocarditis

c) Septic sore throat

d) Scarlet and rheumatoid fever

e) Puerperal sepsis

235- Tinca pedis, the agent causative of Athletics’ foot, is classified as:

a) Gram-negative bacteria

b) Gram-positive bacteria

c) Protozoa

d) Fungi

e) Plasmodium

236- Mode of Rabies’ transmition include:

a) Saliva of an infected animal

b) Direct contact

c) Inhalation of nasal secretion

d) Insect bit

e) Sexual transmition

237- What kind of bacterias is normally found colon?

a) 90% aerobics and 10% anaerobic

b) 90% anaerobic and 10% aerobics

c) 50% anaerobic and 50% aerobics

d) Anaerobic only

e) Aerobics only

238- Which of the following agents can be used to treat chickenpox?

I- Calamine lotion

II- Miceller colloidal bath

III- Diphenhydramine

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

239- Which of the following organism cause anaerobic infections?

a) Clustridium

b) Plasmodium

c) Mycoplasma

d) Corynobacterium

e) Chlamydia

240- All the following agents are gram-negative bacterias EXCEPT

a) H. influenza

b) N. gonorrhea

c) Salmonela

d) Fusobacterium

e) Corynobacteria

241- All the following are examples of gram-positive bacterias, EXCEPT:

a) Streptococcus

b) V. colerae

c) Chlostridium

d) Staphylococcus

e) Corynobacteria

242- FALSE statement regarding bacterias include:

a) Grows extra or intracellulaly

b) Gram stain is the technique used to identify the bacterias

c) Bacterias grows only in the presence of oxygen

d) Bacterias can be classified in gram-negative and gram-positive

e) Bacterias are mainly formed of cell wall, cytoplasm and nucleo

243- All the differences regarding gram-positive and gram-negative are right, EXCEPT:

a) Gram-positive has taechoic acid and peptydoglycan on its cell wall

b) Gram-positive has a single bilayer of phospholipids

c) Gram-negative has lipoproteins and peptydoglycan on its cell wall

d) Gram-negative has a two single bilayer of phospholipid

e) Gram positive bacterias has a stronger cell wall structure than gram-negative bacterias

244- All are correct statements regarding virus, EXCEPT:

a) They can cause acute and chronic diseases

b) They cause only acute diseases

c) They have lifelong latency and long-term reactivation

d) They contain DNA or RNA in its structure

e) They are obligate intracellular organisms

245- Example of virus with lifelong latency and long-term reactivation may include:

a) Herpes virus

b) Cold virus

c) Influenza virus

d) HIV virus

e) Enterovirus

246- Chlamydia may cause all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

a) Genitourinary infections

b) Respiratory infections

c) Conjunctivites

d) Endocarditis

e) Neonate ophthalmic infection

247- Mycoplasma is similar to bacteria. It differs from bacteria due to its lack of:

a) Cytoplasm

b) Nucleo

c) ATP synthesis

d) Cell wall

e) Ability to grow in the presence of oxygen

248- Which of the following substances is mainly present in the cell wall of a fungi microorganism?

a) Lipoproteins

b) Taechoic acid

c) Ergosterol

d) Peptydoglycan

e) Proteins

249- All of the following is/are true statements regarding HELMINTHS, EXCEPT:

I- Multicellular organisms with complex life cycles

II- Can infect the intestine and other tissues

III- Schistossome, ascaris hookworms and strongloids are examples of helminthes

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

250- Which of the following organisms is/are the most often causative agents of bacterial skin infections?

I- Streptococcus pyogens

II- Staphylococcus aureus

III- Escherichia coli

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

251- Papilloma virus causes a popularly infection called:

a) Common wart

b) Anatomical wart

c) Seborrheic wart

d) Venereal wart

e) Plane wart

252- All of the following are bacterial diseases of the skin or soft tissue, EXCEPT:

a) Follculites

b) Erysipela

c) Fournier gangrene

d) Varicella

e) Cellulites

253- Which of the following is the most common agent causative of encephalitis?

a) CMV

b) HSV-1

c) Mumps

d) Rabies

e) Echovirus

254- Which of the following organisms may cause meningitis?

I- Virus

II- Bacteria

III- Fungi

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

255- Joints and bones infections caused by bacteria include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a) Lyme disease

b) Osteomyelitis

c) Arthritis

d) Osteoporosis

e) All are right

256- Correct statements regarding OSTEOMYELITIS include:

I- May be caused by S. aureus, S. epidermis and P. aeruginosa

II- Bacterial infection of bones and bone marrow

III- May be treated by vancomycin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

257- The most common agent causative of COLDS include:

a) Rhinovirus

b) Enterovirus

c) Adenovirus

d) Myxovirus

e) H. Influenza

258- Which of the following is/are agents causative of OTITE MEDIA?

I- S. pneumoniae

II- H. influenza

III- M.cataharlis

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

259- Common agent causative of otite extern commonly called swimmer’s infection include:

a) Streptococcus

b) Mycoplasma

c) Pseudomonas

d) Legionella

e) Neisseria

270- Bacterias or virus may cause all the following eye infection, EXCEPT:

a) Blepharitis

b) Hardoleum

c) Conjuctivitis

d) Retinitis

e) Glaucoma

271- Common causative agent of peptic ulcer and gastric complications in the stomach:

a) Salmonela

b) Shigella

c) S. aureus

d) H. pylori

e) E. coli

272- Mostly of the viral diarrhea infections is caused by:

a) Rhinovirus

b) Rotavirus

c) Adenovirus

d) Myxovirus

e) Enterovirus

273- By addition of a solute, solubility of non-electrolytes is decreased. This is:

a) Common ion effect

b) Disintegration

c) Salting out

d) Salting in

e) None of the above

274- Which of the following compound is known as amphiprotic solvent?

a) Methanol

b) Water

c) Acetic acid

d) Ethanol

e) All are right

275- M+ molecular ion is detected in the following instrument:

a) Colorimetry

b) Mass spectroscopy

c) Spectrophotometry

d) Spectrometry

e) Ultraviolet detectors

276- Determination of alcohol in blood in done by:

a) HPLC

b) TLC

c) Reverse phase HPLC

d) Gas chromatography

e) Mass spectroscopy

277- Mass spectroscopy is used in

a) HPLC

b) TLC

c) Reverse phase HPLC

d) Gas chromatography

e) Mass spectroscopy

278- For a radioisotope to be useful as an organ-scanning agent, the emissions must be:

a) Alpha particles

b) Beta particles

c) Positrons

d) Gamma Rays

e) X-rays

279- Mechanism of action of TLC-Thin Layer Chromatography is by:

a) Gas absorption

b) Column theory

c) Capillary theory

d) High pressure extraction

e) Temperature range theory

280- In paper chromatography, the cellulose fibers:

I- Have a strong affinity for the water in the solvent system

II- Have a weak affinity for the organic solvent in the solvent system

III- Have a weak affinity for the water in the solvent system

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

281- Sterilization of hormone is done by:

a) Dry heat

b) Lyophilization

c) Filter

d) Radiation

e) Autoclave

282- Correct statements regarding ethylene oxide sterilization include:

I- A gas sterilization method that combines heat and moisture

II- Has a high penetration power to sealed containers

III- It is used in dry heat sterilization

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

283- In the assay of amphetamines in plasma, it can be extracted by:

a) Ether

b) Isopropyl alcohol

c) Tetrahydrofuran

d) Nyhadrin

e) Amides

284- HPLC- High Performance Liquid Chromatography

I- Mobile phase is aqueous solution

II- The particle size of stationary phase affects resolution

III- Utilize high pressure pump to increase efficiency in the resolution

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

285- Statements concerning degradation of drugs by first order process include:

I- The drug degradation may result in loss of the active ingredient resulting in loss of therapeutic activity

II- Drug degradation may produce a toxic product

III- Degradation is increased by increase in temperature

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

286- Statements concerning degradation of drugs by zero order process include:

I- The slope of a plot of concentration versus time yields a rate constant

II- The rate is independent of the concentration

III- The concentration remains unchanged with respect to time

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

287-Which is not a phase II metabolism reaction?

a) Acetylation

b) Conjugation with glucuronic acid

c) Conjugation with Glycine

d) Conjugation with glutathione

e) Sulfoxidation

288- Factors that determine (in Canada) bioequivalence of two brands of drug include

I-The taste of the preparation should be the same

II-The size, shape and color should be the same

III-Pharmacokinetic parameters of the preparation should be the same

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

289- The process of activate a prodrug in the body is called:

a) Biotranformation

b) Bioactivation

c) Activation

d) Transformation

e) Pro-activation

290- If the pKa of an acid drug is 4.4 and you have an ambient with pH 7.4

I-The drug will be almost completely ionized

II-The drug will be rapidly excreted

III-The drug will not be ionized neither excreted

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

291- A new cardiac drug is administrated, when ingested together with fruit juice we can see a decrease in the quantity of drug eliminated unchanged in the urine. When administrated together with antacids the drug increase the elimination rate. We can conclude that this drug is:

a) Weak base

b) Weak acid

c) Hydrophobic drug

d) Strong base

e) Neutral drug

292- Gluthatione conjugation, a phase II metabolism has which of the following substance as derivative of its reactions?

a) Carboxilic acid

b) Glucuronic acid

c) PABA + Alcohol

d) Marcapturic acid

e) Amides

293- Salicylate toxicity treatment include which of the following?

I- Alkalinization of urine with sodium bicarbonate

II- Decontamination with syrup of IPECAC until 30 minutes of overdose

III- CHARCOAL every 6 hours

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

294- Plasma protein that exclusively bind basic drugs include:

I- α1-acid glycoprotein

II- Lipoproteins

III- Albumin

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

295- Characteristic of drugs at steady-state concentration include:

I- The rate of drug absorption is equal to the rate of drug elimination

II The drug reaches its best pharmacological effect

III- Steady state is calculated by the rate of infusion of the drug divided by the volume of distribution versus rate of elimination of the drug

a) I only

b) III only

c) I and II only

d) II and III only

e) All are correct

296- Adding 150mMol of NaCl to water pH 7.4, compared to water with no NaCl added. Will result in:

a) Decrease of ionization for both weak acids and bases

b) Decrease of ionization for weak acids and increase for weak bases

c) Increase of ionization for weak acids and decrease for weak bases

d) Increase of ionization for both weak acids and bases

e) No measurable effect on ionization for both weak acids and bases

297- Route of administration where the drug is 100% bioavaliable:

a) Intramuscular

b) Intravenous

c) Subcutaneous

d) Inhalation

e) Oral

298- In PD, a 9 months old female, bilirrubin is 99.9% bound to plasma protein. When attending total plasma bilirrubine concentration is 9μmol/L (0.5mg/L). This means that:

a) 99.9% of the bilirrubin in her body is bound to the albumin found in plasma

b) 99.9% of the bilirrubin is found in plasma

c) Commonly used drugs cannot displace bilirrubin because it is so highly bound

d) 0.1% of total plasma bilirrubin is not protein bound

e) Virtually all of the plasma protein binding sites are occupied by bilirrubin

299- For elimination constant (K), the plot log:

a) Form a straight line which slope is negative

b) Form a straight line which slope is positive

c) Form a curve line which slope is negative

d) Form a curve line which slope is positive

e) Form a linear line parallel to X slope.

300- Drugs that increase hepatic microsomal enzyme and increase its own metabolism, this is known as:

a) Potentiation

b) Addiction

c) Tolerance

d) Toxic effect

e) Resistance

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