SELF ASSESSMENT -I Part 1
1.How much
NaCl must be added to the following prescription to make it isotonic?
Rx
Benzocaine HCl 1%
Bromobutanol 0.5%
Boric acid------sufficient
quantities
Purified water------60 ml
NaCl equalent of Benzocaine-----0.2
NaCl equalent of
Bromobutanol—0.24
NaCl equalent of Boric
acid--------0.52
A.0.54 g
B.0.34g
C.0.66g
D.011g
E.0.23g
2.How many mEq of magnesium sulfate are represented in
1 g anhydrous magnesium sulfate? (M.wt of MgSO4 =120)
A.16.6 mEq
B. 20.5 mEq
C.60 mEq
D. 32 mEa
E.64.5 mEq
3. How much lidocaine is present in
a 1 :1000, 30 ml solution of lidocaine ?
A.30mg
B.30gm
C. 30mg
D. 3 gm
E.3mg
4. If 60 gram of 1% Hydrocortisone
is mixed with 80 gram of 2.5% Hydrocortisone,
what is the % w/w of hydrocortisone
in final mixture ?
A.2.25 %
B. 3.15 %
C. 1.85 %
D. 4.35 %
E..2.60%
5.What is the half-life of drug that
has rate constant 0.067 days -1 ? [ First order kinetic]
A.12.11
days
B. 5.56
days
C.10.31
days
D.0.67
days
E. 3.25
days
6.What is a rate of constant of
heparin in first order kinetic if 50 units/cc of heparin
remains in solution after 10 days ?
[Initial concentration of heparin was 5000 units/cc]
A.2.1 day-1
B. 0.5 day-1
C. 0.46 day-1
D.10 days-1
E. 1.23 day-1
7.An adult recommended dose of drug
is 5mg/kg/day, how many milligrams of drug is
required every four hours ? [patient
weight =110 lbs]
A.41.66
mg
B.20.34 mg
C.12.53 mg
D.50.05 mg
E.49.34 mg
8- Septra
DS #20: i po BID x 10 days:Your label directions:
A- Take 1
tablet twice daily for 10 days as needed
B- Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days
C- Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days may
repeat every 20 minutes
D- Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days may
repeat every 20 minutes if pain persist
E- Take 1 tablet twice daily for 10 days maximum
20 doses
9-
Colchicine is used as anti-inflammatory agent in the acute treatment of:
a)
Osteoporosis
b)
Rheumatoid arthritis
c)
Osteomyelites
d) Gout
e) Pressure
atrophy
10- The use
of indomethacin in gout treatment:
a) Inhibit
the acute gout arthritis inflammation by inhibition of prostaglandin formation
b) Inhibits
tubulin synthesis
c)
Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid
d) Inhibit
uric acid synthesis
e) Inhibit
the reabsorption of uric acid by the kidney
11- Which
of the following prostaglandin is a potent mediator or asthma attacks:
a) PGI
b) PGE2
c) PGD2
d) PGF2
e) PGI2
12- Goals
of gout treatment may include:
I- Reduce
inflammation during acute attacks
II-
Accelerate renal excretion of uric acid
III- Reduce
the conversion of purine to uric acid
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
13-
Characteristics of GOUT, a group of disorders of purine and pyrimidine
metabolism may include:
I-
Hereditary metabolite disease marked by inflammation of the joints
II- The
joint inflammation is caused by precipitation of uric acid crystals
III- It is
a type osteoporosis
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
14-
Succimer (Chemet) is indicated for the treatment of:
A.Fe
B.Pb
C.Mg
D.Hg
E.Au
15- Use of
estrogen in osteoporosis:
I- Estrogen
enhance calcium retention and retard bone loss
II-
Estrogen is useful in treat osteoporosis associated to menopause
III-
Estrogen is not effective at increasing bone mass that has already been lost.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are correct
16-
Osteoporosis is mainly characterized by:
a) Loss of
joint movements
b) Loss of
bone mass
c)
Imbalance of uric acid
d) Hormonal
imbalance
e) All are
correct
17-
Antimalarial drug used in the treatment of rheumatoid arthritis as
DMRA-Disease-Modifying Antirheumatic Drug
a)
Chloroquine
b) Quinine
c)
Sulfasalazine
d) Hydroxycloroquine
e)
Primaquine
18-
Celecoxib should be carefully prescribed to the patient hypersensitive to the
following class of drug.
A-Tetracyclines
B-Quinolones
C-Sulphonamide
D-Macrolide
E-Metronidazole
19- Correct
administration of Penicillamine in the treatment of rheumatois arthritis
include:
a) With
meals
b) In emptying stomach
c) With
plenty of water
d) With
orange juice
e) Before
bedtime
20- Which
of the following agents is the best choice of treatment for an asthma patient
with rheumatoid arthritis who is considered to have aspirin sensitivity?
a)
Ibuprofen
b)
Acetaminophen
c) Gold
therapy
d)
Azathioprine
e)
Cyclophosphamide
21- MAOI’s
should be carefully used with:
I.Trazodone
II.Levodopa
III.Methylphenidate
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
22- Calcium
channel blocker that may cause myocardial infarction as side effect include:
I-
Diltiazen
II-
Verapamil
III-
Nifedipine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
23-
Bradycardia and orthostatic hypotension are characteristic side effects of:
I-
Guanabenz
II-
Hydralazine
III-
Vasodilators
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
24- An
important advantage of using dopamine in cardiac shock may include:
a) It will
not cross BBB and cause CNS effect
b) It has
no effect on α and β-receptors
c) It
produces dose-dependent increasing cardiac output and renal perfusion
d) It will
not increase blood pressure
e) It can
be given orally
25- Which
of the following diuretics may shows an uricosuric activity?
a)
Spirolactone
b)
Furosemide
c)
Chlortalidone
d) Triamterene
e)
Chlorothiazide
26-
Ibutilide is an antiarrthymic drug, classified as:
I.. Class I
antiarrthymic drug
II. Class
II antiarrthymic drug
III. Class
III antiarrthymic drug
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
27- The use
of sildenafil together with atenolol may result in:
I- Tremor
II-
Hypotension
III- Visual
disturbance
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
28- A
diabetic patient suffering from hypertension is having enalapril, however he is
complaining from severe dry cough that we can associated as a side effect of
the enalapril. Which would be the best choice for changing this medication?
a) Ramipril
b) Losartan
c)
Amlodipine
d)
Indapamide
e)
Captopril
29- Drug of
choice when treating hypertension in a diabetic patient may include:
a) ACE inhibitors
b)
β-Blockers
c) Calcium
Channel Blockers
d)
Digitalis
e) Nitrates
30- Angina,
a cardiovascular complication characterized by the oxygen sufficiency my be
aggravated by all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Exercise
b) Hot places
c) Cold
places
d) Anger
e) Over
weight
31- Drugs
used in the treatment of hypertension associated with renal failure may
include:
I-
Hydralazine
II-
Furosemide
III-
Atenolol
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
32-
Digitalis is contra indicated in the treatment of:
a) Myocardial infarction
b) Coronary
Heart Diseases
c) CHF
d)
Arrhythmias
e) Venous
congestion
33-
Systemic lupus or erythromatus lupus may be a side effect of:
a)
Propanolol
b) Digoxin
c)
Cyclophosphamide
d) Hydralazine
e)
Hydroxazine
34- Which
best describe the proprieties of labetolol:
a) β-blocker
b) α-blocker
c) β1 and α-blocker
d) β non selective and α-blocker
e) β2-blocker
35- Correct
statements regarding blood pressure may include:
I- Systolic
pressure is the highest arterial pressure during a cardiac cycle.
II-
Diastolic pressure is the lowest arterial pressure during a cardiac cycle
III-
Diastolic pressure is crucial in verifying if a person suffers of high blood
pressure
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are correct
36-
Cholesterol:
I-
VLDL-Very Low Density Lipoproteins are formed in the liver
II- LDL-Low
Density Lipoproteins are formed from VLDL and carry LDL cholesterol that is the
“bad cholesterol”
III-
HDL-High Density Lipoproteins are formed in the liver and small intestine. They
carry HDL cholesterol that is the “good cholesterol”
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
37-
Abnormal levels of lipids can cause all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)
Atheroscherosis
b) Heart
attack
c)
Pancreatitis
d) Bone
dystrophy
e) Stroke
38- Lipid
lowering group of drugs include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) Bile
acid binders
b) Fibric
acid derivatives
c)
Angiotensin inhibitors
d)
Lipoprotein synthesis inhibitors
e) HMG-CoA
reductase inhibitors
39- Niacin
mechanism of action as lipoprotein synthesis inhibitor is characterized by:
a) Decrease
the production rate of VLDL that synthesizes LDL
b) Block
the synthesis of cholesterol
c) Decrease
lipoproteins production by increasing the breakdown of lipids
d) Remove
VLDL from bloodstream
e) Binds to
bile acids in the intestine
40- Lipid
lowering drug that binds to bile acids in the intestine causing the acids to be
excreted include:
a)
Clofibrate
b)
Cholestyramine
c) Niacin
d)
Genfibrozil
e)
Atorvastatin
41- The
safest lipid lowering drug that may be used in pregnancy include:
a)
Pravastatin
b)
Genfibrozil
c)
Cholestyramine
d)
Sinvastatin
e)
Clofibrate
42-
Absorbable agents successfully used in patients with high cholesterol include:
I-
Grapefruit juice
II-
Nicotinic acid
III- Fish
oil
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and III only
e) All are
correct
43- Digoxin
may be used in dysrhythmias, however CANNOT be used in one specific type of
dysrhythmias that is:
a) Atrial
tachycardia
b)
Ventricular tachycardia
c) Paroxysmal
tachycardia
d) Atrial
fibrillation
e) Flutter
44- Class I
sodium channel blocker antidysrhythmic agents include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a)
Quinidine
b)
Lidocaine
c)
Phenytoin
d)
Propafenone
e)
Amiodarone
45-
Nifedipine (procardia) indicated for the treatment of:
A.Diabetes
B.Gout
C.Hypertension
D.Hyperuricemia
E.Hypernatremia
46-
Diuretic that act in the loop of henle include:
a)
Acetazolamide
b)
Hydroclorothiazide
c)
Furosemide
d)
Spirolactone
e)
Chlortalidone
47- All the
following diuretics may cause metabolic acidosis, EXCEPT:
a)
Hydroclorothiazide
b)
Acetozalamide
c)
Spirolactone
d)
Amiloride
e)
Triametrene
48-
Diuretic with pteridine and pyrazine hererocycles rings used in the treatment
of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus caused by lithium:
a)
Spirolactone
b)
Amiloride
c)
Indapamide
d)
Furosemide
e)
Acetazolamide
49- Best
diuretic used in the adjunct treatment of hepatic cirrhosis and renal diseases
include:
a)
Spirolactone
b)
Amiloride
c)
Indapamide
d)
Furosemide
e) Acetazolamide
50-
Amikacin is classified in the aminoglycoside group of antibiotics: True
statement about this drug:
I.It is
indicated for the treatment of gram negative bacterial infection
II.The
principle side effect of this drug is renal and ototoxicity.
III.The
trough concentration of amikacin must be less than 10mg/ml
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
51-
Antihypertensive drug most likely to cause syncope effect or first-dose effect:
a) Prazosin
b)
Clonidine
c)
Minoxidil
d) Guanabenz
e) Labetolol
52- Antihypertensive α-blocker used in BPH-Benign Prostate Hypertrophy:
a) Prazosin
b)
Terazosin
c)
Doxazosin
d)
Hydralazine
e)
Minoxidil
53- Drug
used in the treatment of hypertension that may cause hemolytic anemia.
a)
Clonidine
b)
Guanabenz
c)
Thiazides
d) Atenolol
e)
Methyldopa
54- One of
the most safe antihypertensive drugs used in pregnancy is:
a)
Metoprolol
b)
Captopril
c) Sodium
nitroprusside
d)
Methyldopa
e) Prazosin
55- What
are the class of drugs used in prophylactic treatment of deep vein thrombosis
following knee replacement surgery.
A-Warfarin
B-Heparin
C-LMWH (Low
Molecular Weight Heparins)
D-Streptokinase
E.Altreptase
56- All of
the following may be examples of calcium channel blocker, EXCEPT:
a)
Enalapril
b)
Amlodipino
c)
Nifedipeno
d)
Diltiazen
e)
Verapamil
57- First
line treatment in mild to moderate CHF-Congestive Heart failure include:
a)
β-Blockers + diuretics
b)
Glycosides + ACE inhibitors
c) Calcium
channel blockers
d)
Vasodilators
e) Nitrates
58- Drug
used in cardiovascular complications which metabolism produce cyanide:
a)
Hydralazine
b) Nitrates
c)
Nitroglycerine
d)
Isosorbid
e)
Nitroprusside
59-
Nitrates used in cardiovascular complications mainly in CHF induce the
formation of:
a) Nitric
oxide
b) Cyanide
c) Zinc
oxide
d)
Nicotinic acid
e)
Nalidixic acid
60- Angina
is a type of:
a)
Congestive heart failure disease
b)
Hypertension disease
c) Ischemic
disease
d)
Atherosclerosis disease
e)
Dysrhytmiac disease
61-
Bupropion (Zyban) is a smoking deterrent and aids to stop smoking. The
principle side effect is seizures, this should be carefully prescribed in the
following condition patient.
I-Aneroxia
nervosa
II-Bulimia
III.Depression
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
62- All are
examples of low molecular weigh heparins, EXCEPT:
a) Orgaron
b)
Enoxaparin
c)
Dalteparin
d) Fragmin
e) Heparin
63- Which
of the following β-agonist drugs has no effect in α-agonists receptors?
a)
Isoproterenol
b) Dopamine
c)
Norepinephrine
d)
Epinephrine
e)
Clonidine
64-
Carbidopa is an adjunct treatment with levodopa for the treatment of
Parkinsonism, what are the true statement.
I-Carbidopa
blocks the conversion of levodopa
II.
Carbidopa functions on central system
III.Carbidopa
functions on peripheral systmem
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
65-
Predominant sympathetic adrenergic receptor in the heart may include:
a)
α-receptors
b) β-receptors
c) Mu
receptors
d) M1-receptors
e) D3-receptors
66- Which
of the following hormone may stimulates the release of TSH-Thyroid Stimulating
Hormones:
a) ADH
b) LFH
c) TRH
d) LH
e)
Aldosterone
67- What
DEIODINATION means?
a) The soma
of thyrosyl residues with thyroglobulin proteolysis
b) The
stimulation of T3 and T4 formation
c) The
production of iodine by the thyroid gland
d) The degradation of thyroid hormones that are eliminated by feces and
urine.
e) The
degradation of iodine
68-
Hypothyroidism is due to hypofunction of thyroid gland. Drug(s) used in
hypothyroidism treatment may include:
I-
Levothyroxin
II-
Liiothyroxin
III-Propylthyiuracil
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
69-
Hyperthyroidism is characterized by high levels of thyroid hormones. Example(s)
of drugs used in hyperthyroidism treatment may include:
I-
Propanolol
II-
Methimazole
III-Propylthyiuracil
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
70-
Characteristic symptoms of hypothyroidism may include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a)
Sensitivity to cold
b) Heat
intolerance
c) Lethargy
d)
Constipation
e) Weight
gain
71-
Autoimmune Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus is also known as:
I- Diabetes Type I
II-
Diabetes insipidus
III- Diabetes
Type II
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
72- Example
of antidiabetic agent that reduces glucogeneogenesis and increase glucose
utilization may include:
a)
Glyburine
b)
Chlorpropamide
c)
Repaglinide
d) Metformin
e) Acarbose
73-
Glyburine is an antidiabetic agent characterized by which of the following
mechanism of action?
a) Decrease
the absorption of carbohydrates thus decreasing postprandial rise of glucose
b) Reduces
glucogeneogenesis and increase glucose utilization
c) Increase
peripheral insulin sensitivity
d)
Stimulates the release of insulin
e) Reduce
gluconeogenesis only
74-
Glyburine and metformin, oral antidiabetic agents are often prescribed together
in the treatment of type II diabetes mellitus due to their:
a)
Antagonist effect
b) Addition
effect
c)
Synergistic effect
d)
Tolerance
e)
Competitive effect
75- Which
of the following statements is/are true regarding regular insulin:
I- It is a
suspension
II- It may
be administrated either SC or IV
III- It is
longer acting than lispro insulin
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
76- Which
of the following agents may have the same therapeutic indication as
propyltiuracil does?
a) Danazol
b)
Levothyroxine
c) Azathioprine
d)
Omeprazole
e)
Methimazole
77- Common
or regular diarrhea may best be treated by the administration of:
I-
Loperamide
II-
Aluminum hydroxide
III-
Bismuth subsalicylate
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are correct
78-
Antidiarrheal agent that appears to be bactericidal to H. pylori being
useful in the treatment of duodenal ulcers and gastric ulcers associated with H.
pylori:
a) Bismuth
subsalicylate
b)
Loperamide
c) Docusate
sodium
d) Psyllium
e) Milk of magnesium
79- Drug(s)
used for the short-term treatment of gastro esophageal reflux and peptic ulcer
diseases may include which of the following?
I- H2 receptors
antagonists
II- Proton
pump inhibitors
III-
Corticosteroids
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
80- One of
the most frequent side effect seen with SULCRAFATE therapy may include:
a) Diarrhea
b)
Constipation
c) Edema
d) Cramps
e) Vomiting
81-
Metoclopramide can act as effective agent in the management of many different
conditions. Some characteristics of metoclopramide include:
I- It
increases the rate of gastric emptying
II- It has
both peripheral and central effect
III- It can
induce Parkinson’s disease
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and III
only
e) All are
correct
82- Drug of
choice in treating NSAIDs-induced ulceration may include:
a)
Ranitidine
b)
Omeprazole
c)
Misoprostol
d)
Sulcrafate
e)
Aluminium hydroxide
83- A
5-Aminosalicylate active metabolite drug used in the treatment of Crohn’s
disease:
a)
Lansoprazole
b)
Famotidine
c)
Misoprostol
d)
Sulfasalazine
e)
Omeprazole
84- Active
metabolite of sulfasalazine may include:
a) Acid
salicylic acid
b)
Salicilyc acid
c)
Salicylates
d)
Aminosalicylate
e)
5-Aminosalicylate
85-
Sulfasalazine, a 5-Aminosalicylate active metabolite drug suffer its metabolism
mainly where?
a) Colon
b) Stomach
c) Small
intestine
d) Duodenum
e)
Esophagus
86- Lipase
inhibitor used to treat obesity may include:
a)
Diethylpropiom
b) Orlistat
c)
Benzphetamine
d) Mazindol
e)
Phenylpropanolamine
87- Which
of the following drugs are available in a transdermal form for the prevention
of motion sickness?
a)
Metoclopramide
b)
Granisetron
c)
Ondasetron
d)
Scopolamine
e)
Diphenhydramine
88-
Sinvastatin used in hypercholesteramia is characterized by which of the
following mechanism of action?
a)
Inhibiting xanthine oxidase
b)
Inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase
c) Inhibit
acetylcholinesterase
d) Acting
as a bile sequestrant
e)
Interfering with fat absorption from GI
89- Lactulose
is an osmotic laxative agent that may be used to treat:
I-
Constipation
II-
Portal-systemic encepalopathy
III- Renal
tubular necrosis
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
90- The
primary function of simethicone used in antacid products is to act as:
a)
Suspending agent
b)
Adsorbent
c) Buffer
d)
Antiflatulant
e)
Flavoring agent
91- The CNS
– Central Nervous System is mainly constituted of:
I- Brain
II- Spinal
cord
III-
Thoracic Lumbar
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
92- All the
following group of drugs have direct action on CNS, EXCEPT:
a)
Cardiotonics
b)
Analgesics
c)
Anesthetics
d)
Antidepressives
e)
Antipsychotics
93- All of
the following are important neurotransmitters, EXCEPT:
a)
Acetylcholine
b) Dopamine
c)
Norepinephrine
d)
Muscarinic-M1
e)
Serotonin
94-
Catecholamines neurotransmitter may include:
I- Dopamine
II-
Norepinephrine
III-
Epinephrine
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
95- Agents
well known as precursor of dopamine include:
a)
Epinephrine
b) Tyrosine
c) Tyramine
d)
Norepinephrine
e) Thiamine
96-
Reaction that converts norepinephrine to epinephrine is normally called:
a)
Chatecholinization
b) Methylation
c)
Oxidation
d)
Deamination
e)
Glutathione conjugation
97-
Neurotransmitter with an indole group in its structure include:
a)
Serotonin
b)
Acetylcholine
c)
Histamine
d) Dopamine
e) PABA
98- Example
of amino acid neurotransmitter may include:
a) Tyrosine
b) Thiamine
c)
Histamine
d) Glycine
e)
Glutamate
99-
Examples of cholinergic neuroreceptors may include:
I-
Muscarinic receptors
II-
Nicotinic receptors
III-
Serotoninergic receptors
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
100- The
major dopaminergic receptor that controls the extrapyramidal system include:
a) D1
b) D2
c) D3
d) D4
e) D5
101- Which
of the following is an example of pure narcotic antagonist?
a)
Pentazocine
b)
Butorphanol
c)
Naltrexone
d) Naloxone
e) C and D
are pure narcotic antagonists
102-
Example of opioid used in the treatment of alcoholism include:
a) Morphine
b) Naloxone
c)
Hydrocodone
d)
Naltrexone
e) Codein
103- Opioid
widely used during labor due to its less liability to induce neonate
respiratory depression include:
a)
Meperidine
b) Morphine
c)
Methadone
d) Fentanyl
e)
Oxycodone
104-
Intense pruritus and vasodilatation are side effects of classic opioids due to
stimulation and release of:
a)
Adrenaline
b)
Histamine
c) Serotonine
d) Mu
receptors
e)
Histidine
105-
Examples of neurotransmitters used by barbiturates drugs include:
I-
Benzodiazepinics neurotransmitters
II- GABA
III-
Glycine neurotransmitters
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
106-
Primidone is a prodrug that when biotransformed become:
a)
Carbamazepine
b)
Risperidone
c)
Phenobarbital
d)
Lorazepan
e)
Phenytoin
107-
MAO-Monoamine Oxidase inhibitor increases the bioavailability of biogenic
amines and are mainly used to treat depression. A classic example of MAO is:
a) Doxepine
b)
Reserpine
c)
Venlafaxine
d)
Desipramine
e)
Phenelzine
108-
Example of less sedating TCAs-Tricyclic Antidepressants include:
a)
Desipramine
b)
Clomipramine
c)
Amitriptiline
d)
Imipramine
e) Nortriptiline
109-
Tricyclic antidepressant with effect in serotonin system used to treat maniac
compulsive disorders include:
a) Lithium
b)
Phenelzine
c)
Clomipramine
d)
Desipramine
e)
Nortriptiline
110- Which
of the following is a wrong statement regarding lithium?
a) Most
effective psychiatric medication used to treat bipolar depression
b)
Interfere with trans membrane Na exchange
c) Takes 2
to 3 weeks to start to show pharmacological effect
d) Weight
gain is a side effect of lithium therapy
e) Blood levels
should be closely monitored during treatment
111-
Antipsychotic drugs are effective in treating all of the following conditions,
EXCEPT:
a) Bizarre
behavior
b)
Dilutions and hallucinations
c)
Schizophrenia
d) Parkinson’s disease.
e)
Alzheimer’s disease
112-
Intal-Sodium cromoglycate is characterized by which of the following
statements?
I-
Non-steroidal drug with anti-inflammatory proprieties
II- They
can be used in prophylaxis of asthma and allergic rhinitis
III Used in
asthma only
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
113- Drug
of choice in the treatment of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease may
include:
a)
Salbutamol
b)
Ipratropium
c)
Salmereol
d) Sodium
cromoglycate
e)
Fluticasone
114-
Chronic progressive lower airway destruction causing reduced pulmonary
inspiration and expiratory capacity is known as:
a) Asthma
b)
Bronchitis
c) GERD
d) COPD
e) CHF
115- Asthma
is a condition of respiratory tract that may be aggravated by:
a)
Allergens
b) Cold weather
c) Execise
d) Emotion
e) All are
correct
116- Which
of the following is considered as the best treatment of asthma?
a) β2-agonists
b)
β-Blockers
c)
α-agonists
d)
Anticholinergic drugs
e)
Cholinergic drugs
117- Which
of the following agents or combinations may be appropriated to treat severe
intermittent asthma?
a) High
doses of inhaled corticosteroid
b) Long
acting β2-agonists
c) Short
acting β2-agonists
d) Oral
corticosteroids
e)
Combination of all the above medication
118-
Examples of drug(s) that may precipitate asthma include all of the following,
EXCEPT:
a) Aspirin
b)
β-Blockers
c)
Ipratropium
d) NSAIDs
e)
Cholinergic drugs
119- All of
the following are pathophysiologic characteristics of asthma, EXCEPT:
a) Airway
obstruction and inflammation
b)
Destructive changes in the alveolar walls
c)
Thickened smooth muscle of airway
d) Mucosal
edema
e) Narrowed
lumen of airway
120- The
MOST well known characteristic symptom of asthma include:
a) Wheezing
b) Mucosal
edema
c) Cough
d) Chest tightness
e)
Tachycardia
121- Drug
considered as the drug of choice in a specific asthma emergency treatment
include:
a)
Salmeterol
b)
Adrenaline
c)
Albuterol
d)
Cortisone
e)
Zafirlukst
122-
Salbutamol is short acting β2-agonists that may be used in the treatment of
which of the following asthma type?
a) Mild
asthma
b)
Emergency asthma
c) Severe
intermittent asthma
d) Moderate
asthma
e) All kind
of asthma
123- All
are correct concerning the action of corticosteroids in asthma status, EXCEPT:
a) Suppress
the inflammatory response
b) Decrease
production of inflammatory mediators
c) Decrease
airway responsiveness to inflammation
d) Relieve
brochocontriction
e) Increase
β-agonist receptors response
124- All
are examples of corticosteroids inhalers used in asthma, EXCEPT:
a)
Beclometasone
b) Sodium
cromoglycate
c)
Flunisolide
d)
Fluticasone
e)
Budesonide
125- All
are examples of drugs used in the treatment of bronchoconstriction, EXCEPT:
a) β2-agonists
b)
Anticholinergic
c) Methyl
xanthenes
d) Xanthine
oxidase inhibitors
e)
Leukotriene modifiers
126- Best
drug used in the prevention of exercise-induced asthma may include:
a) Long
acting β2-agonists
b) Short
acting β2-agonists
c)
Anticholinergics
d)
Leukotriene modifiers
e)
Corticoids
127- All
are β2-agonists used as brochodilators in the treatment of bronchospasm,
EXCEPT:
a)
Albuterol
b)
Salmeterol
c)
Terbutaline
d) Pindolol
e)
Levalbuterol
128-
Example of methyl xanthine used in the treatment of respiratory complications
include:
a)
Theophyllin
b)
Terbutaline
c)
Ipratropium
d)
Zafirlukast
e)
Salmeterol
129- Agents
considered as precursor of leukotriene include:
a) Tyrosine
b) Cyanide
c)
Arachidonic acid
d)
Prostaglandins
e)
Histamine
130-
Indication of leukotrienes modifiers in the treatment of asthma includes which
of the following?
I- Acute
treatment
II-
Prophylaxis
III-
Chronic treatment
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
131- Drug
known as the new relative cromolyn like drug include:
a) Cromolyn
sodium
b)
Cromoglycanate sodium
c)
Cromolyin disodium
d) Disodium
cromoglycanate
e)
Nedocromil sodium
132-What
are the agents commonly found in sinusitis?
I-S.
Pneumoniae
II-H. Influenza
III-Pseudomonas
Aeroginosa
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
133- E.
Coli is the most common agent in UTI it can be classified as:
a) Bacillo
b) Cocci
c)
Spiroquete
d) Vibrio
e)
Coccobacilli
134- Which
of the following antibacterial will not be effective against gram-negative bacteria?
a)
Ofloxacine
b)
Penicillin V
c)
Ciprofloxacine
d)
Tetracycline
e)
Clarithromycin
135- Which
is/are correct about staphylococcus?
I- Most of
the penicillins do not work properly in treating staphylococcus
II- Staphylococcus
alter the effect of ampicillins
III-Methicillin
Resistant Staphylococcus aureus is treated by vancomycin
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
136- Which
of the following condition is/are characteristics of schistosomiasis?
I-
Cirrhoses of liver
II-
Jaundice
III-
Bleeding
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
137-
Granulomatus is due to:
a)
Mycobacterium infection
b)
Plasmodium infection
c)
Staphylococcus infection
d)
Streptococcus infection
e) Salmonella
infection
138- Which
of the following is the agent causative of chancre?
a) Plamodium
vivax
b) Treponema
paladium
c) Staphylococcus
aureus
d) Streptococcus
viridians
d) Mycobacterium
139- All of
the following are bacterial infection, EXCEPT:
a)
Antibiotic associated colitis
b) Impetigo
c) Lyme
disease
d) Rubella
e)
Cellulites
140- Which
of the following is the agent causative of diphtheria?
a)
Plasmodium
b) Vibrio
c)
Corynebacterium
d) Shigela
e)
Neisseria
141-
Yersenia is the agent causative of which of the following diseases?
a)
Schistosomiasis
b) Chancre
c)
Diphtheria
d) Plague
e)
Necrosting fasciitis
142- Which
of the following organism contain taechoic acid on its cell wall?
a)
Salmonela
b)
Steptococcus
c) Haemophilus
d)
Neisseria
e)
Chlamydia
143- Which
of the following organisms is NOT sexually transmitted
a) Neisseria
gonorrhea
b) Treponema
palladium
c) Molluscum
contagious
d) Staphylococcus
aureus
e) Clamydia
trachomatus
144- Which
of the following organisms can be transferred from mother to her babies during
labor?
a) Neisseria
gonorrhea
b) Treponema
palladium
c) Molluscum
contagious
d) Chlamydia
trachomatus
e) All of
the above
145- Which
of the following organism may cause gas gangrene?
a) Clostridium
perfringenes
b) Borelia
burgdorferi
c)
Bacteroids
d) Clostridium
tetani
e)
Fusobacterium
146- Staphylococcus
aureus is the major agent causative of which of the following disease?
a) Travel’s
diarrhea
b)
Encephalites
c)
Nosocomial infections
d)
Conjunctivitis in new borne babies
e)
Sinusitis
147. The emulsion instability problem, when dispersed oil droplets merge and
rise to the top of an o/w emulsion or settle to the bottom in w/o emulsions,
described as:
A-Breaking
B-Cracking
C-Coalescence
D-Creaming
E-Phase inversion
148.What is
the HLB value of a surfactant system composed of 20 g Span 20 (HLB = 8.6) and 5
g Tween 21 (HLB = 13.3)?
A-18
B-9
C-4
D-5
E-6
149. SHEAR
FORCE is employed for a viscometry experiment. The following statements are
true about shear force:
I.Under
thixotropic conditions shear force, the structure breaks down and fluidity
increases. e.g., gel-sol transformation.
II.
Thixotropy-Gel to sol transformation
III.Antithixotropy:
occurs when apparent viscosity of the system continues to decrease with
continued application of shear up to some equilibrium.
a) I only
b) III only
c) I and II
only
d) II and
III only
e) All are
correct
150.
Surfactants may be predominantly hydrophilic (water - loving) or lipophilic
(oil - loving) or reasonably well balanced between these two extremes.
A.Anionic
B.Cationinc
C.Nonionic
D.Ampiphilic
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