SELF ASSESSMENT -II PART 2
151. Drug excreted by tubular excretion is:
A. Aminoglycosides
B.
Penicillinv
C. Tetracyclin
D. Metronidazole
152.Most drugs are metabolized or eliminated from the
body by first order kinetics, this implies that the amount of drug metabolized
or eliminated changes with
A. The time and concentration of drug in the bloodv
B. Dependent on only time
C. Dependent only on the concentration of drug in
blood
D. Amount of absorption
153.The difference between peak and trough
concentrations is greatest when;
A.Drug is given at dosing intervals much longer than
the half lifev
B.Drug is given at dosing intervals much smaller than
the half life
C.Drug is given at dosing intervals same as half life
D.Not related to half life
154.Median lethal dose means (LD50)
A. The dose of drug that causes a defined therapeutic
response in 50% of subjects
B. The dose that causes a defined toxic effect (e.g.,
headache, bleeding, nausea) in 50% of subjects
C. The dose that causes death in 50% of subjects
(usually laboratory animals) v
D. The relative maximal response caused by a drug in a
tissue preparation.
155.Which of the following is NOT a side effect of
thiazide diuretics?
B Hypomagnesia,
C.Hyponatremia
D.Hyporcalcemia
E-Metabolic
acidosis
156.Zero slope graph;
B.Parallel to y-axis
C.Diagonal x- axis
D.Does not exist
157.A drug is completely metabolized in liver, if a
patient has renal failure, what will be the effect:
A. Metabolite excreted
B. Metabolite accumulate in liverv
C. Metabolite reabsorbed
D. Metabolite cleared
158.Time to reach steady state Css depends only on;
A. Drug concentration
B. Drug bioavailability
C. Drug t1/2
D. Drug clearance
159.Cp = Co e-kt first
order equation log Cp vs time give?
A. A straight line with negative slope
B. A straight line with positive slope
C. A curve
D. Zero slope
160.If t1/2 elimination
a drug is 2 hours, what fraction of the original dose of the drug will remain
in the body after 4 hours.
A. 50%
B. 25%v
C. 12%
D. 0%
161.Bioavailability;
A. The relative amount of drug that reaches the liver
B. The relative amount of drug that reaches the
systemic circulationv
C. The relative amount of drug that reaches the
kidneys
D. The relative amount of drug that excreted
162. Area under the curve (AUC)
B.The AUC value is very useful for calculating the
relative efficiency of different drug products
C.Units for AUC are concentration x times. That is,
mg.hr/L or mg.hr.L-1.
D.All of the above are correctv
163. What is the first process occurs before a oral
drug become available for absorption from tablet dosage form.
A.Ionization
of the drug
B.Dissolution
of the drug in the GI fluids
C.Dissolution
of drug in the blood
D.Disintegration of tabletv
164. Determine the bioavailability value for a drug
available as a 200 mg capsule with a calculated AUC of 40 mg/dL/h when 200 mg
IV bolus of the same drug exhibits an AUC of 50 mg/dL/h
A. 1.6 mg/dL/h
B. 0.8 mg/dL/h
C. 0.4 mg/dL/h
D. 0.2 mg/dL/h
165. Which of the following route of administration
frequently display differences in bioavailability;
A. i.v
C.IM
D.Subcutaneous
166. Serving instead of someone or something else
A.Negligence
B.Veracity
C.Vicarious
D.Cooperative
167. Which of the following routes of administration
is/are least likely to be influenced by the first pass effect;
I. Trans dermal
II. Inhalation
III. Oral
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and III only
D. I and II only
E.All of the above are correct
168. A drug has elimination half-life of 3 hours and
its apparent volume of distribution is 200 mL/kg. What is the total body renal
clearance of this drug in 70 kg in L/hours.
t1/2 =0.693
VdCL
A. CL = 3.2 L/hr
B. CL = 1.6 L/hr
C. CL = 2.6 L/hr
D. CL = 1.0 L/hr
169.
Determine the half-life of furosemide if it appears to be eliminated from the
body at a rate constant of 49% per hour.
t1/2 =0.693k
A. 1.4 hours
B. 1.5 hours
C. 1.6 hours
D. 1.7 hours
170. Volume of distribution (Vd):
I. mathematical relationship between the total amount
of drug in the body and the concentration of drug in the blood.
II. Vd is
greater for drugs that concentrate in tissues rather than in plasma
III. Vd is
greater for drugs that concentrate in plasma rather than in tissue
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and II
D.II, and III
E.All of the above are correct
171. Plasma concentration:
A. Cp =D/Vd
B. Dose = (Cp)(Vd)
C. A and B are correct
D. Only A is correct
A. I only
B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct
v
174. Who will determine the price of non prescription
products
175. Which of the following is true if renal clearance
is increased.
A. Glomerular filtration is increased. v
B. Increase in reabsorption
C. Decreased absorption
D. Higher plasma protein binding
176. In case a pharmacist misread a Tamoxifen
prescription and filled it with Tambocor.
A.Vicarious
B.Negligence
C.Veracity
D.Autocratic
177. Decrease in elimination from body due to one of
the following factor.
A. Increase in half life
B. Decrease in reabsorption
C. Increase in reasbsorption
D. Increase steady state (Css)
178. Correct statements about bioavailability include:
I. Pertains to the rate and extent of drug absorption II For two dosage forms
of a drug to be considered equally bioavailable, the measured AUC for each drug
must be equal. III. For two dosage forms of a drug to be therapeutically
equivalent they must be equally bioavailable.
A. I only B. III only C. I and II only D. II and III
only E. All of the above are correctv
C.
Measure’s a pharmacy’s ability to meet its current liabilities with current
assets.
181.Which of the following functional groups would NOT
form a glucuronide conjugate?
I.Alcohol
II.Carboxylic acid
III.Ester
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
182. How many isomers can be possible for a molecule
contain 2 chiral or stereogenic center
A-6
B-4
C-8
D-9
E-10
183. The
following drug reduces intestinal absorption of phosphate, that results in
decrease of plasma phosphate concentration.
I.Magnesium
trisilicate
II.Sodium
bicarbonate
III.Aluminum
hydroxide
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II
are correct
D-II and
III are correct
184. 1-methyl cyclopentane and cyclohexane are
A.Enantiomer
B.Isomer
C.Constitutional isomersv
D.Identical
185. 2-Pentene has;
A. Constitutional isomers
B. Geometrical isomers
(cis/trans) v
C. Enantiomers
D. Identical
187. 1-methyl cyclopentane is isomer of :
A.Cylcohexane v
B.Hexane
C.Pentane
D.1-methyl cyclohexane
188. The following amino acid
molecular structure contain indole ring:
I.Histidine
II.Serotinin
III.Tryptophan
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
189.
Leukotriene play important role in numerous physiological
functions. What enzyme responsible for the conversion of fatty acids to
leukotriene.
A.Lipoxygenase
C-L-amino acid decarboxylase
D-Cyclooxygenase
E-Phospholipase A2
190. Procain and Procainamide structurally they are related:
A.Homologs
B.Analogs
C.Bioisosters
D.Isomers
191. Erythromycin estolate may produce which side
effects:
A.Bleeding
B.Cholestatic jaundicev
C.Ototoxicity
D.Hepatotoxicity
192. Which of the following is NOT a phase I metabolic
reaction;
A. Oxidation
B. Hydroxylation
C. Dealkylation
D. Deamination
E. Methylationv
193. Hydrolysis of nitrile (cyanide) gives when heated
with aqueous acid or base;
A. Amines
B. Carboxylic acidsv
C. Alcohols
D. All of the above
194. What type of metabolism would primarily occur
with the following compound?
A. Glucuronide conjugation v
B. Hydrolysis
C. Hydroxylation
D. Deamination
195. Which of the following is NOT the phase II metabolism
A.Methylation
B.Glucuronide conjugation
C.Acetylation
D. Hydroxylation
196. What characteristic of an organic compound allows
it to undergo conjugation with glutathione?
I. Electrophilic function groups
II. Aromatic carboxylic acids
III. Alcohols
A.I onlyv B.
III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
197. What characteristic of an organic compound allows
it to undergo amino acid conjugation?
A.Electrophilic functional groups
B.Aromatic carboxylic acids
C.Alcohols
D.Epoxides
198.A compound that induces cytochrome CYP450 would:
A.Increase CYP450 protein content in the liver
B.Decrease CYP450 protein content in the liver
C.Inhibit CYP450 activity by newly formed metabolites
D.None of the above
199.Which
of the following Phase II reactions predominates in man?
A.Methylation
B.Glucuronidation
C.Sulfation
D.Acetylation.
200. Which of the following reactions is most likely
to occur on a primary aromatic amine?
I. Methylation
II.Glucuronidation
III. Sulfation
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
201.The oxygen atom that is incorporated into a
molecule upon oxidation by cytochromes CYP450 comes from what source?
A.Water
B.Molecular Oxygen v
C.NADPH
D.Acetylcoenzyme A
E-
202. Which of the following is the isotonic or
iso-osmotic solution of NaCl
A. 0.09% w/v
B. 0.9% w/v
C. 9% w/v
D. 0.009% w/v
203.A pharmacist prepared 1 gallong of KCl solution
mixing 565 gram of KCl (valency =1) in appropriate vehicle. How many
milliquivalents of K are in 15 ml of this solution? (MW = K 39, Cl 35.5)
A.8
B.20
C.30
D.40
204.The drugs used smoking cessation include
I.Morphine
II. Zyban
III. Nicotine
A.I only B. III only C.I and II only
D. II and
III only
E. All of the above are correct
205.Which of following drug causes drug induced
systemic lupus erythomatus
A.Proponolol
B.Clonidine
C.Captopril
D.Hydralazine
E.Prazosin
206. The pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones
which unite in the front with the symphysis pubis and in the back with the
sacrum. The coxal bones are composed of the ilium, the ischium, and the pubis.
This described which body joints;
A.elbow
B.shoulder
C.Hip
D.Knee
208.Which causes hypercalcemia
A.Hydrochlorothiazidev
B.Furesamide
C.Sprionolactone
D.Ethacrynic acid
209.When is a person classified as a diabetic, after a
fasting blood glucose concentration:
A.3 mmol/dL
B.6 mmol/dL
C.7 mmol/dL
D.8 mmol/dL
E.10 mmol/dL
210.Drugs used for graves disease
A. Iodine
B. Methimazole and propylthiouracilv
B.Prednisone
C. Methotrexate
D.Thiazides
211.Which drug is used as a DMRD (Disease modifying
anti-rheumatic drug)
A.Celecoxib
B.Vioxx
C.Ibuprofen
D.Methotrexatev
212.Which disease is the cause of depletion of
acetylcholine
A.Alzheimersv
B.Parkinson’s
C.Rye syndrome
D.Hypertension
E.Hyptension
213.Which drug acts by the receptor level blockade of
leukotrienes
A.Salmetrol
B.Prednisone
C.Methotrexate
D.Zafirlukast
214.Which is an HMG-Co A reductase inhibitor:
A.Cholyestramine
B.Fenofibrate
C.Niacin
D.Lovastain
215. Which of the following is aldosterone anatgonist
A.Captopril
B.Spiranolactone
C.Clonidine
D.Hydrochlorothiazide
216. The inventory and merchandising are part of store
management. The major economic reason for low inventory:
A.Internal theft
B.Money locked in over stock
C.Product expired soon
D.External theft
217. Secondary causes of Parkinson’s include:
I.Diuretics
II.antihypertensives
III. Phenothazine
A.I only B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
218.
Celecoxib:
A.antiplatelet aggrigator
B.Cox1 inhibitor
C.CoxII inhibitorv
D.Both Cox I and Cox II inhibitor
219. What are the long term side effects of using oral
contraceptive pills
I.Hypertension
II. Ovarian cancer
III.Breast cancer
A.I only B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correctv
220. Chronic bronchitis causes:
I.Emphesema
II.Wheezing
III.Respiratory tissue inflammation
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correctv
221.Mechanism of action of allopurinol
I.Blocks uric acid reabsorption
II.Disrupts urate deposition
III.Blocks Xanthine Oxidase
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
222.Which provides 100% bioavailability
A-Intramuscular
B-Intravenousv
C-Extravenous
D-Oral
E-Parenteral
223. Cardiac glycosides exert their activity by
inhibition of an integral plasma membrane protein known as:
A- Na+ion
channel
B-Na+/K+-ATPase. v
C-Potassium ion channel
D- Na+/H+-ATPase.
224. Sulfonamide conjugation
I.Phase II reaction
II.Phase I reaction
III.Cytochrome P450 activated microsomal reaction
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
225. MINOXIDIL: A prodrug which must be conjugated
with ….to form the active drug. Minoxidil is potent renal vasodilator and
stimulator of renin release.
A. sulfate
B.phosphate
C.Nitrate
D.carbonate
226. 2 tab tid pc means:
A.2 tablet 3 times daily before meals
B.2 tablets 3 times daily after meals
C.2 tablets 3 times daily as needed
D.2 tablets 3 times daily every morning
227. 1 po q4-6h prn pain means:
A.Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours as needed for pain. v
B.Take 4-6 tablets every 1 hours as needed for pain.
C.Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with milk
D.Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours with juice
E.Take 1 tablet every 4-6 hours every other day
228. If a 600 ml of a 15% (v/v) solution of methyl
salicylate in alcohol are diluted to 1500 ml what will be the percentage
strength.
A.8%
B.4%
C.6%
D.10%
E.12%
229.How many mL of a 1:500 (w/v) stock solution should
be used to make 4 liters of 1:2000 (w/v) solution?
A.500 ml
B.1000 ml
C.2000 ml
D.1500 ml
E.100 ml
230. You need to mix syringes filled with 1g cefazolin
in 20ml diluent. Your stock solution contains 200mg cefazolin/ml. How much
stock solution needed.
A.10 ml stock solution + 10 ml of D5W to make 20 ml in
each syringe.
B.5 ml stock solution + 15 ml of D5W to make 20 ml in
each syringe.
C.10 ml stock solution + 20 ml of D5W to make 20 ml in
each syringe
D.10 ml stock solution + 30 ml of D5W to make 20 ml in
each syringe
231. Sclerotic plaques found in brain is seen in which
disease
A.Parkinson’s
B.Alzheimers
C.Cystic fibrosis
D.Multiple sclerosis
232. How does losartan functions:
I.Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor blocker
II. Angiotensin (AT-1) receptor agonist
III.Angiotensin Converting Enzyme inhibitor
A.I onlyv B.
III only C.I and II only D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct
233. Aldrosterone secreted in:
A.Adrenal cortex
B.Adrenal medulla
C.pancrease
D.pitutory gland
E.Saliva
234. Which barbital is the quickest acting and can
cross the BBB
A, Amobarbital,
B.Secobarbital,
C.Pentobarbital
D.Phenobarbital
E.Thiopentalv
235. Pancuronium
A.Depolarizing NMJ blocker
B.Non depolarizing NMJ blockerv
C.irreversible acting cholinomimetics
D.cholinergic agonist
236.
Sciatic nerve are found in;
A.Brain
B.All foot branchesv
C.Arms
D.Hip joints
237. Which is hormone that acts on the cell membrane
A. Testosterone
B. ADH
C. Insulinv
D. Estrogen
239.Which of the following drug structure contain
tertiary amine functional group;
A.Neostigmine
B.Physostigminev
C.Ipratropium
D.Pyridostigmine
240. Incase of left ventricular failure blood pour in:
A. vena cava
B. aorta
C. upper chest area
D. Lungv
241. Embolism is caused by:
A. Obstruction of nerves
B. Obstruction of blood vessels
C. Bulging of arteries and veins
D. Blockade of systemic circulation
E. Lack of oxygen supply
242. Which of the following antineoplastic used in
rheumatid arthritis
A. Vincristine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Methotrexate
D. Mefloquin
243.What is good choice of antihypertensives in
diabetic patients
A.Thiazide diuretics
B.β-blockers
C.ACE II
inhibitors
D.Potassium sparings
E- a-blockers
244. All of the following are penicillinase resistant
antibiotics EXCEPT:
A. Cloxacillin
B. Oxacillin
C. Carbinicillin
D. Dicloxacillin
E. Nafcillin
245.Ischemia can be treated by
I.Dipyridamol
II.Aspirin
III.Sulfinpyrazone
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
246.Ethyl alcohol drug interaction with
II.Tricyclic antidepressants
III.Chloral hydrate
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
247. What is Point-of-Sale (POS) system?
I. Combination of computer software, hardware and cash
register that capture product information at time of sale or when its is
received into inventory.
II. Provide accurate information more promptly
overstocks and out-of-stock situations can be reduced through early detection.
III. Which makes it possible to scan products on
scanning counters or hand held scanners.
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
I.Related to theophylline
(Xanthine base)
II.Peripheral vasodilator
(enhance oxygenation)
III.Improve flexibility or red blood cells and improve
blood ability to flow.
A.I only
B. III only
C. I and II
only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
249. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of
spironolactone.
A. GI disturbances and diarrhea
B. Hirsutism
C. CNS effect and confusion
D. Hypokalemiav
250. Which of the following is NOT used sublingual.
A.Digoxinv
B.Nitroglycerine
C.Isosorbid dinitrate
D. Lorezapam (ativan)
250. Maximum of amount of codeine dispensed without
prescription
II.20 mg/30ml
III.30/tablet
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E.All of the above are correct
251.Arsenic antidote
A.Deferoxime
B.Dimercaptol
C.Edate sodium
D.Edate calcium
252.What is the most sedative TCA’s
A.Amitriptyline
B.Imipramine
C.Desipramine
D.Clomipramine
253.Which of the following can cause elevated serum
digoxin concentrations.
A.Propranolol
B.Quinidine
C.Hydralazine
D.Clonidine
254,
Determine the half-life of furosemide if it appears to be eliminated from the
body at a rate constant of 49% per hour.
t1/2 =0.693k
A.1.4 hours
B.1.5 hours
C.1.6 hours
D.1.7 hours
255. Which of the following routes of administration
is/are least likely to be influenced by the first pass effect;
I.Transdermal
II. Inhalation
III. Oral
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E.All of the above are correct
256. Which of the following used in maniac bipoloar
disorder
A.TCA’s
B.SSRI’s
C lithium therapy
D.Both TCA’s and SSRI’s
257. Clofibrate
I.reduce plasma concentrations of triglycerides and
cholesterol in patients at high risk of coronary heart disease.
II. lowers cholesterol synthesis and lowers VLDL &
HDL levels.
III.Increase cholesterol synthesis and increase HDL
levels.
A.I only B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
258. What is normal healthy person renal clearance:
A.200 ml/min
B.120 min/hour
C.120 ml/min
D.200 ml/hour
E-130 ml/min
259. The profit obtained from good sold has not
increased but inventory stock decreased. The reason could be:
A.Goods sold in bulk
B.Purchased
from distributor but not from wholesaler
C.Shrink (internal or external theft)
D.Goods not sold
260. Normal cholesterol level;
A.150-270 mg/dL
B.130-230 mg/dL
C.230-300 mg/dL
D.300-400 mg/dL
E.<160 mg/dL
261. What can be used with narcotics in depressed
cancer patient;
A.Thioridazine
B.Diazepam
C.Amitryptaline
D.Haloperidol
E-Fluxetine
262. Episodic cough or wheezing is called.
I. Asthma
II. Emphesema
III. Chromic bronchitis
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
263. Which of the following is not expected to be a
side effect of levodopa therapy?
A.hypotension
B.tachycardia
C.hallucinations
D.mania/paranoid psychosis
E.nausea/vomiting
264. The molecular structure of the most muscarinic
antogonist contain a specific heterocyclic ring which is best described as an:
- aniline and piperazine rings.
B aniline and pyrrolidine rings. C pyrrolidine and
piperazine rings. D. pyrrolidine and piperidine rings.
265. In organ transplant the rejection is due to;
I. Infiltration of T cells
II. Infiltration of B cells
III.Bacteriophages
A.I only
B.III only C.I and II only
D. II and III only E. All of the above are correct
266.The invention of biotechnology include:
I.Tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA)
II.Streptokinase
III. Recombinant DNA technology
A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III
only E. All of the above are correct
267.The Sabin vaccine is superior to the Salk vaccine
because:
I.It can be administered orally
II.It is more effective
III.The effect of Sabin vaccine is longer than the
Salk vaccine
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
268. Koplik’s spots are associated with
A.Tetanus
B.Measles
C.Mumps
D.Chicken pox
269. Which of the following is NOT a lymphoid organ
A.Tonsils and adenoids
B.Lymph nodes
C.Bone marrow
D.Thyroidv
270. Vericella is:
I.Chicken pox
II.Small pox
III.Shingels
A.I onlyv B.
III only C.I and II only D. II and III only
E. All of
the above are correct
271.The chemical basis of heredity is:
A.RNA
B.DNAv
C.RBC
D.WBC
272. Bacteriophages are
A.Bacterial
B.Protozoa
C.Virusv
D.Polysacharides
273.Antibody is chemically
A.Polysaccharide
B.Aminoacids
C.Virus
D.Proteins
274. Interferons are:
I.Biological response modifiers
II.Used in cancer treatment
III.Cytokines
A.I only
B. III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
275.Which of the following is the most prevalent
immunoglobulins in the body
A.IgM
B.IgB
C.IgG
D.IgE
E.IgA
276.Which of the following is/are live viral vaccine
I.Oral typhoid vaccine
II.Influenza vaccine
III.Oral polio vaccine
A-I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D- II and III only
E-All of the above are correct
277.Interferon
is a protein produced by the:
A.RBC’s
B.Heart
C.WBC
D.Liver
278.Immunization against measles usually employs:
A.measles taxoid
B.Gamma globulin
C.a live attenuated virus
D.Live bacteria
279.Gray patches on the tonsils or mucus membranes of
the nose and throat are associated with:
A.Measles
B.Mumps
C.Diptheraia
D.German measles
280.Which of the following is NOT a platelet aggregate
inhibitor
A.Aspirin
B.Ticlopidine
C.Clopidrogel
D.Streptokinase
281.The major amount of white blood cells:
A.Basophil
B.Monocytes
C.Neutrophils
D.Eosiniphils
282.Antisense I.A piece of DNA producing a mirror
image ("antisense") messenger RNA that is opposite in sequence to one
directing protein synthesis.
II. Antisense technology is used to selectively turn
off production of certain proteins
III.Antisense technology is used in production
recombinant DNA
A.I only
B-III only
C.I and II only
D- II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
283.
Retrovirus: I.A virus that contains the enzyme reverse transcriptase.
II.This
enzyme converts the viral RNA into DNA, which can combine with the DNA of the
host cell and produce more viral particles.
III.Anti-virus
A.I only
B.III only
C.I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
284.Transcription
I.Synthesis of messenger (or any other) RNA on a DNA
template.
II. The agent (e.g., plasmid or virus) used to carry
new DNA into a cell.
III. The transplantation of living organs, cells or
tissues from animals into humans.
A.I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D- II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
285.What is (define) pharmaceutical care?
I.Pharmaceutical Care is to optimize the patient's
health-related quality of life, and achieve positive clinical outcomes, within
realistic economic expenditures.
II.Pharmaceutical is the component of pharmacy
practice
III. Pharmacists in partnership with patients and
other health care providers, use their unique knowledge and skills to meet
patients’ drug related needs and to achieve positive patient outcomes by
maintaining or improving the patient’s quality of life.
A.I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D- II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
286.To achieve the pharmaceutical care?
I.Pharmacist must establish professional relationship
and maintained
II.Patient specific information must be collected,
organized, recorded and maintained
III. The pharmacist reviews, monitors, and modifies
the therapeutic plan as necessary and appropriate, in concert with the patient
and healthcare team.
A.I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D. II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
287. Which of the following is the most effective
communication skills.
A. Listening
B.Listening and speaking
C.Verbal
and writing skills
D. Writing skills
288. Assertive skills
A.How much we stand up for our own and how much
consideration we have for others. v
B. Boldly insist that your needs are met
C.Assertive people create unpleasant atmosphere that
other people want to avoid.
D. Their lack of confidence or inability to voice
their opinion forces them to agree to anything or to let important information
go unsaid.
289. AAeerroossoollss aarree ddeeffiinneedd aass::
AA..ccoollllooiiddaall ssyysstteemmss ooff
vveerryy ffiinneellyy ssuubbddiivviiddeedd lliiqquuiidd oorr ssoolliidd
ppaarrttiicclleess ddiissppeerrsseedd iinn aanndd ssuurrrroouunnddeedd bbyy aa
ggaass.. v
B.Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid
or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid
C.Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided liquid
or solid particles dispersed in and surrounded by solid
D.Colloidal systems of very finely subdivided gas
particles dispersed in and surrounded by liquid or solid.
290. RRuubbbbiinngg AAllccoohhooll:: CCoonnttaaiinnss
aabboouutt 7700%% ooff EEtthhyyll AAllccoohhooll bbyy vvoolluummee,, uusseedd
iinn
II.. EExxtteerrnnaallllyy ffoorr bbeeddrriiddddeenn
ppaattiieennttss..
IIII.. GGeerrmmiicciiddee ffoorr
iinnssttrruummeennttss
IIIIII.. SSkkiinn cclleeaannsseerr pprriioorr ttoo
iinnjjeeccttiioonn
A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III
only E. All of the above are correct
291. How to use intranasal sprays or pumps.
I. Hold your head in an upright position
II. Close one nostril with one finger
III. With the mouth closed, insert the tip of the
spray or pump into the open nostril. Sniff in through the nostril while quickly
and firmly squeezing the spray container or activating the pump.
A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III
only E. All of the above are correct
292. Emergency contraception regimens are two doses of
oral contraceptive tablets. The first dose is administered;
A.Within 4 days of unprotected intercourse, the second
dose is taken 2 days later
B Within 72 hours of unprotected intercourse; the
second dose is taken 12 hours later.
C.Within 48
hours of unprotected intercourse; the second dose is taken 12 hours later.
D.Within 24 hours of unprotected intercourse, the
second dose is taken 12 hours later.
293. If the pharmacist becomes aware that a child (any
one under the age of 19) has been physically harmed, sexually abused or
sexually exploited by a parent or other person, the pharmacist must report
these circumstances to:
A.The parents
B. The appropriate provincial authority
C.Police
D.Coworker
294. The pharmacist upholds and acts on the ethical
principle that the primary accountability of the pharmacist is to the patient,
with respect to:
I. Patient confidentiality
II.Involvement of the patient in the decision-making
process, and the right of the patient to make their own choices.
III. The patient's well-being is at the center of the
pharmacist's professional and business practices.
A.I only B. III only C.I and II only D. II and III
only E. All of the above are correct
295.Define Delegation?
A.In a larger operation, the pharmacy owners delegate
certain supervisory responsibilities that include store manager, assistance
manager, head cashier and head cosmetician. v
B.Delegation is problem of beyond managerial growth.
C.Delegation is each employee responsibility would be
accountable to his or her supervisor.
D.Delegation is a staff requirement assessment
296.What is function of High Efficiency Particulate
Air filter?
A.To remove particles
B.To maintain temperature
C.To maintain humidity
D.To remove fine bacterial contaminants
E-To maintain air flow
297.Define Pharmacoeconomics
A. Cost of illness and pharmaceutical services and products.
B.The description and analysis of the costs of drug
therapy to healthcare systems and society
C.Cost of pharmaceutical services and products.
D.Price determination of pharmaceutical services and
products
298. What is the Canada
Health Act?
I.The Canada Health Act is Canada’s federal health insurance legislation.
II.The Act sets out the primary objective of Canadian
health care policy:
III. The Canada Health Act establishes
criteria and conditions related to insured health care services and extended
health care services that the provinces and territories must meet in order to
receive the full federal cash contribution under the Canada Health and Social
Transfer (CHST).
A.I only
B-III only
C-I and II only
D- II and III only
E. All of the above are correct
299.Pharmacy manager who puts certain rules and
expects his subordinate to follow them without exception;
A.Co-operative
B.Autocratic
C.Beurocratic
D.Assertive
300. Which of the following prevents withdrawal
symptoms and helps reduce drug cravings in opioid dependent individuals.
A.Morphine
B.Codiene
C.Methadone
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